That's funny. I can't find that phrase in his post. Yet you use quotation marks.
I think you're being rather disingenuous here.
se
I put quotation marks around the phrase because, while the concept I was getting at is well known in philosophy, I'm not sure of the proper name for it.
Basically, if I say I cannot hear any difference, then that statement makes no claims that impinge on you (I'm not saying that you can or can't hear anything).
Likewise, if I say that I can hear a difference, but with specific test equipment, and under specific conditions, I am still only making a claim about my personal experience.
However, if I state the "no difference exists" then, by inference, I am making a claim about YOUR experience.
(I'm stating that I don't hear a difference, but I'm also stating that, since no difference exists, either you won't hear one either or, if you say you do, then you must be wrong.)
It's like my saying that a certain address on a certain street doesn't exist - if you claim that it does, then either you're wrong or you're lying.
(And stating it as a fact is not the same as saying "I think you're wrong" or "I'd like to see your map".)
By stating that "no difference exists" as if it were a proven fact, he is essentially saying that I am wrong.
He could have said something like "all of the evidence and results of studies I've seen seem to suggest that the difference shouldn't be audible" if he preferred to be less contentious.
The simple fact is that, if he were actually able to demonstrate that there were no differences between various DACs, then I would be on his side.
However, the differences are very well documented (just look at impulse response test graphs of ay DAC).
The sole "item under discussion" is whether the differences are audible or not......
And, while it's true that some studies have indeed failed to prove that differences in digital filters are actually audible, the few actual test results people keep trotting out are rather thin. Face it, the fact that two dozen volunteers were unable to hear something, using their own equipment, and their own sample material, really doesn't constitute "ironclad proof that no audible difference exists" - at least not on the planet where I live.
I'm not asking anyone to take my word for it that a difference exists, but I also haven't seen any "proof" that such a difference doesn't exist.
(I will concede that the differences I'm hearing might be due to something else, or even that I might be imagining them, but I will expect actual proof of that before I consider it to be true.)
The "standards" about what is and isn't audible, like much of what we "know" of science, are subject to periodic revision...