Everyone talks about the linear bass of the Roland, and the graphs I remember seeing seem to bear that out (very slight rise of 5dB, where the treble is still 5dB higher than the bass goes). And that’s what I am having trouble wrapping my head around... I have the S8F and really love them. I have lots of other IEMs and the only one that challenges it in my collection is the IMR R2 Aten. The S8F’s FR curve is almost perfectly aligned with the Harman response curve. My other IEMs all sound better to me when I EQ them to be close to the Harman curve... Whether you like that reference or not is a different point - the point I am making is that I seem to gravitate towards the Harman reference FR curve, and is an important part of my selection criteria. The Roland’s curve is very flat, without as much of the mids and bass rise of the Harman. In the end I have a hard time believing the tech makes the response curve results sound different - the tech can make achieving a response curve more or less doable, the tech can add other attributes such as texture, better/worse phase, etc. But the FR is the FR... I would speculate that any other IEM with the Roland FR people would be claiming is overly bright with no bass... but owners of the Roland don’t seem to be saying that... So, my question is this for the owners of the Roland... does it sound much brighter than an IEM that has a Harman-like FR? If not, can you speculate why your ears might not be hearing the response curve the way that it would sound on other IEMs with the same curve as the Roland?