Measurement for everyone includes (digitally) recording it because a digital recording is a measurement, regardless of whether others know this basic fact or not and you yourself admitted that amplitude is a measurement!Because measurement for you includes recording it.
Obviously it cannot be useless because I’ve just used it (to disprove an observation/assertion)! Also obviously, a measurement that evidences an actual objective difference is inherently useful and we can, if required, proceed to identifying what the difference is and what’s causing it.Something you are likely well qualified to do. Yet is useless on its own in this case.
The “clause” I’m using, as you well know, could be a recording of the difference or some other measurement. And a recording of the difference is analysable, at least in terms of frequency content, which you also know. And, as it disproves the observation/assertion then we are “done”. If the poster comes back with the question; “What is the difference”, then obviously, that’s another, different question!The common measurements as you put it, which do not include your get-out clause of recording it, and saying you're done.
A Transient Inter-Modulation measurement is an uncommon measurement, doesn’t it allow us to analyse TIM?Also uncommon measurements do not allow any analysis to find a cause.
The question in this case was “does a measurement exist that evidences the existence of the difference”. Your argument; Does a measurement exist that allows “analysis to understand the difference” is obviously an entirely different question. I can’t see why you find this so difficult to understand, unless of course you do understand it and are just trolling?An MP3 at a high bit rate (by your own words, transparent), proves nothing on its own. Neither does PCM on its own. We need analysis to understand the difference.
G