seanwee
Headphoneus Supremus
- Joined
- Jun 9, 2015
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I've read a little about 2nd and 3rd order harmonic distortion but nothing much.I'm assuming you're putting forth the minimum phase argument, in that time-domain effects shouldn't really exist in headphones as they will all be reflected in FR. Your logic is certainly sound and I'll back you up in a vacuum; however, in my experience that is not the case. Two IEMs, one BA and one DD, EQ'd to match each other, sounds different especially down in the bass. That can be attributed to third-order harmonic distortion, who knows. All I'm saying here is an IEM with, for example, BA woofers (and therefore very fast bass) sounds unnatural, reference point being a 2ch setup in a properly treated room. I can boost the IEM's bass up beyond what I perceive to be the bass level of the 2ch setup, but it still doesn't sound right. You can make the argument that this IEM is therefore more true to the source, but most recordings aren't really made with headphones in mind and so doesn't really make sense; the speaker setup should theoretically be the one closer to the source in this case.
I think (and again, not trying to put forth any thesis here) that there is something not being accounted for when playing a non-binaural recording through headphones, and somehow having a longer decay function fixes that issue. My final point being that I have listened to some fast headphones and IEMs and they have always sounded a little off to me in that there isn't enough linger that I'm hearing on actual 2ch setups. Personal preference? Perhaps. But again, I'm comparing to literal speakers here.
Apparently the way some high-end amps alters the 2nd and 3rd order distortion makes it sound better than some brutally honest amps like the Objective 2.
Can you enlighten me more about it?