I'm going to buy one of these, then fail the blind test against my sound card/phone/fisher price radio using my Stax rig.
No, seriously, I can't even tell sources apart sighted. I've tried really hard too.
Look, if the difference between my sound-card and the Sabre DAC into my stereo receiver is ~10%, then MP3 320 versus FLAC would be ~0.1%.
You talk about the significant differences you hear between MP3 320, V0 and FLAC, I really don't think I could directly identify any of them blind, if I could it'd require a hell of a lot of practice first.
Originally Posted by mikeaj /img/forum/go_quote.gif
The system of voltage input sound output is very complicated and clearly extremely nonlinear. Because of the way acoustic geometries work (think folding), a small deviation in the signal can cause a very significant difference in the output. Swap some of those voltage levels, or remove or add some, and you can end up with structures of different form. Also obviously there's a lot more inputs that go into a speaker than just the voltage— resonance, crossover, etc.
For DNA and animals we're looking at chemical systems for which very small changes in input (source to materia) cause very small changes in output (animal produced). This is pretty obviously true because the systems are pretty much time-invariant and reasonably close to linear.
That's interesting theory, yet I currently have no reason to believe in it apart from intuition, like going to the Zoo.
Originally Posted by
maverickronin /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Apparent objectivist though you appear to be, you're going to have to concede that regardless of incomplete "scientific" explanations, to some, there are audible differences when listening to complex music. We haven't yet learned how to adequately objectify these differences.
We haven't even demonstrated that these differences exist. I think psychology and neurology are usually better explanations for that kind of thing given the current state of the evidence.
Maverick, if there was an immense data set of failed blind tests indicating that the difference hasn't been demonstrated, then your comment would be valid. As it stands there is no data like that (if there is, then
please link it), so all you're doing is asking for evidence before you believe in something, and until then, writing it off as psychoacoustics. Have you even tried listening to a NOS DAC?
If you believe only in evidence published in peer-reviewed journals, then I'll assume you believe in
parapsychology and precognition, too, and next time, don't answer with a picture of fractals within 5 minutes of coming online.
Originally Posted by
mikeaj /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Possible explanations:
- Extremely small differences in sound are audible to humans (but how small? how golden are the ears?)
- The wrong measurements were taken, and something else would have revealed some relatively large differences that most everybody agrees should probably be audible
- There are some mysterious properties at work that nobody has measured before, responsible for the difference in sound people hear
- The difference in perception is caused by something other than the actual difference in the sound
A whole lot of tests and anecdotal evidence show that people readily perceive differences in sound, even between samples that are identical (where no such difference actually exists, and even for well-trained listeners). That means #4 is very plausible for any scenario, hence why it would be good to see clarification and demonstration of extraordinary claims and scenarios outside of what is expected.
I think this is very true, however correlation != causation. Just because some people hear phantom differences in identical sound since our minds are susceptible to that (like Winamp versus Foobar), and the internet is littered with glossy reviews... doesn't correlate to that legitimate differences don't exist.
(translation ->) "Just because shark oil marketing and human fallacy has played the boy cried wolf so many times, doesn't mean the wolf isn't actually there, this time".