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Originally Posted by Snake /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Where did you get that idea? It is not "hard" precedence but both judges and lawyers look to ideas all over the world to find guidance during decisions.
Legal Affairs
Microsoft alleged antitrust violations / The European Union's decision
Only a fool does not see that a wise man looks to others for judgement guidance in order to learn previous mistakes and wisedom. The U.S. Courts are no different.
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No, international decisions are not binding in the United States, subject to a few exceptions. Laws made as part of a treaty signed by the US are brought in under the Constitution. English caselaw prior to 1776 can still be law, too, provided it hasn't been overturned or modified since. There are still a few examples around. That's because we adopted their common law system.
Without getting into a technical discussion of jurisdiction, foreign court decisions have
no binding effect on United States courts. You
cannot bring a Swedish decision into the Los Angeles Superior Court (LASC) and ask them to apply that law to a case. You can't do that.
However, I can take a decision from the California Supreme Court and apply it in the LASC. I can take a Ninth Circuit decision and apply it in the LASC. I can take a Supreme Court decision and apply it in the LASC.
I cannot take an Oregon Supreme Court decision and apply it in the LASC. Oregon is a different jurisdiction. But because Oregon is in the Ninth Circuit, a Ninth Circuit decision is just as applicable in Oregon as it is in California. And the Supreme Court's decisions apply everywhere.
You probably have a lot of questions about the finer points of this, but it takes a couple semesters of law school to get through all of them.
It is complex and there are some very complex doctrines about how/when/what to apply state law if you remove a case to federal court. Amd much else.
But there's no way to get a Swedish decision recognized by an American Court. You can discuss in in your briefs, of course, but the judge/court
cannot base a decision upon that.
As for the necessity of patents and intellectual property, there are a couple of interesting arguments to be made. One you can find
here where you'll see how intellectual property held back development of the steam engine. Another interesting take is that the fashion industry has no copyright protection for its designs. You can trademark labels, logos, etc., but you cannot copyright the cut of a dress.
So, how come the fashion industry survives without any copyright protection whatsoever? How come it hasn't been destroyed by pirates, leaving aboslutely no way to make a profit? Funny, it seems that the local mall's tenants are about 90% fashion stores, yet the pirates haven't put them out of business. Why is that?