[1] I’m aware of chords, but I have always been curious why they elicit certain responses psychologically. [2] Mozart was technically brilliant, but I find him a bit uptight and ornate personally. On the other hand, I can listen to his music and enjoy it, [3] which is not the case with atonal music I’ve heard like Shoenberg. It’s almost seems like the atonal composers are working purely theoretically, coming from a mathematical perspective, not an emotional one, or even experiential one.
[4] I had to Google “John Cage’s 4:33” but this is the musical equivalent of an empty modern art exhibit with a million dollar price tag. A joke? A commentary? Sure, but not music.
1. With few exceptions, a chord on it's own has no meaning and doesn't really elicit anything, it's the relationship between a sequence of chords. In some cases only two chords are enough but usually three are needed and when we string a lot of them together we can elicit more complex responses and changes of responses. As mentioned, these responses have been well known for many centuries but why they elicit these responses is not really known, beyond some basics such as the notes perceived to be most closely related are those which have the simplest mathematical relationship. Interestingly, one of the exceptions I mentioned is a chord which is today called the tri-tone chord but was at one time known as the "Devil's Chord". It's use by a composer was for a few centuries punishable by excommunication which at the time was effectively a death sentence! I mention this to illustrate that even centuries ago not only was the perception/response to chords well known by composers but was well known by the establishment. Composers' ability to use musical tools/rules to manipulate responses and elicit emotion was taken extremely seriously and treated effectively as a potential treat to national security, and this continued well into the 20th century.
2. That's an opinion taken out of context. In fact the opposite is true; compared to most of the music composed before him (throughout the high baroque), Mozart's music is deliberately very much less ornate. "Ornamentation" has a specific meaning in music though, so perhaps we're getting our descriptions/terms confused? Also, there is considerable evidence that Mozart was quite the opposite of "uptight", more of a rebel, who simply didn't care about some of the conventions of music or of behaviour and even some of the laws of his day. To really appreciate music beyond the very superficial, we have to look at it in context of it's time and culture.
3. Again, in a sense you have this backwards. As mentioned above, there is a mathematical perspective to conventional notes and harmony. This was discovered by Pythagoras and indeed the tuning system used up until the beginning of the 18th century is still called Pythagorean tuning. You are making a judgement and distinction which does not exist, or rather which only exists in today's popular culture. In reality there isn't a distinction between a mathematical perspective and an emotional one and many/most composers deliberately applied mathematical equations/concepts to their compositional process and the one's who didn't were still applying maths, just unwittingly. Certainly, Schoenberg introduced unbreakable rules for "serial" composition but those rules existed simply to ensure that the rules of traditional harmony could not inadvertently creep into a composition. In a sense then, Schoenberg was doing the exact opposite of what you suggest, he was trying to eliminate the "mathematical perspective" which exists in traditional harmony/music! Also, there is absolutely an emotional basis for Schoenberg's works, arguably more so than with traditional compositional techniques! To appreciate this though, we have to again look at it in context, the context of the "Expressionism" artistic movement and the eschewing of traditional ideas of fine art, "correctness" and beauty in favour of pure subjectivism, unencumbered/unrestricted by traditional rules. Additionally, an idealised depiction of love, family feuds, idyllic pastoral scenes and innocuous still lifes was no longer enough for many artists by the turn of the C20th, they wanted to "talk" about the personal reality of living and the traditional language/rules of harmony were entirely inadequate for communicating these concepts, and so they had to go! This isn't just a musical movement but a movement across all the arts; poetry, literature, dance, painting, sculpture, etc., resulting in the artistic movement called "Modernism".
4. Again, you are ignoring context! Art was no longer restricted to the traditional and superficial concept of being pleasing, pretty or "correct", with Modernism the definition of art changed to a much wider definition of; a subjective means of communication by an artist. Wider because it covers the communication of ANYTHING, not just traditional areas of god, love, idyllic landscapes, etc. By the time of John Cage, Modernism and this wider definition of art was already old hat. Unwittingly then, you have effectively contradicted yourself! For example: Why have you asked the questions: "Is it a joke? Is it a commentary?"? Why have you made the statement "sure, but not music" and what thought process did you go through to arrive at that conclusion? I'm NOT questioning your conclusions/judgement, I'm trying to get you to realise that: There was a cause for your questions, that something caused (elicited) you to think about your opinion of what music is (and is not) and that act of thinking about it also elicited a further thought process of qualifying your statements/questions with "in my own humble opinion". These considerations, definitions and judgements, as well as your resultant feeling of at least annoyance (if not anger) required quite a complex set of thought processes. So what is this something which has elicited all of this? The answer is John Cage's "4:33"!!! This is a way more complex and advanced set of elicited responses than the (relatively) extremely simplistic response of "pleasantness" or "correctness" which composers could achieve many centuries ago. And, just in case you were wondering, no, there's no lucky happen-stance here, eliciting thoughts and heated discussion of whether it's a joke and of the very nature of what is music was not a by-product of 4:33, it was the whole point of why he composed it in the first place! John Cage knew exactly what he was doing, he knew exactly what response/s and thought processes he was eliciting. In terms of the modern meaning and purpose of "art", 4:33 is therefore a masterpiece, one of the most important pieces of the C20th and your comments/questions confirm that at the very least, it succeeded in fulfilling it's complex artistic communication goals! Hence why I said that you've effectively contradicted yourself. Indeed, of all his works, Cage himself felt that 4:33 was his crowning achievement. It's rather a shame though that many people completely fail to recognise what's going on, they go no further than dismissing it based on 19th century notions of "niceness" or "correctness". The next time you hear a piece of music (or see a piece of art) and feel cheated, disappointed, angry or even disgusted, don't just dismiss it as not art, give yourself a moment, step back and ask yourself if feeling cheated, angry, disappointed or disgusted isn't in fact exactly the intended response and if so: 1. Why, what is the artist trying to communicate that requires you to feel those things? and 2. The artist deserves at least a little appreciation for manipulating/eliciting your emotional response. That's the whole point of modern/post modern art, good modern art is very personal and very interactive, it's all about your personal perception and playing with your expectations ... all of your expectations, not just the expectation of exceeding a certain level of "correctness"!
G