colonelkernel8
Headphoneus Supremus
The only ad hominem here is you deliberately wasting all of our time.
The paper I posted investigated how inaudible frequencies stimulated brain activity while listening to music for 400 seconds.
Gregorio then did a False Equivalence with other research that performed short micro bursts and clicks, and tried to make inferences between the research to discount it.
Beyond that, claims of bit depth doesn’t matter, dither fixes everything, etc and Benny Hill videos, and a slew of ad Hominem. And now the companies statements, companies which developed CD technology, none the less, are simply discounted as “ marketing material”.
Good lord..
Oh look, more ad Hominem…
Exactly, which had nothing to do with your claim of 16 vs 24bit.The paper I posted investigated how inaudible frequencies stimulated brain activity while listening to music for 400 seconds.
And yet again, you demonstrate you don’t know what test signals are, and therefore your claim here is false. Just another to add to the list.Gregorio then did a False Equivalence with other research …
Just repeating your false claim while not responding to the questions put to you demonstrates what?Beyond that, claims of bit depth doesn’t matter, dither fixes everything, etc
Good lord indeed, you can’t even tell the difference between science/fact and marketing. Which demonstrates that:Good lord..
It was not an ad hominim, it is apparently an actual fact. Otherwise, why would you be trying so hard to demonstrate that it’s true, in a science discussion forum of all places?Oh look, more ad Hominem…
Your example is literally a red herring. No one would be unable to tell the herring and the salad apart. You picked these items presumably because they sound so different, that if someone were not able to tell the two apart, the blame automatically goes to the test instead of the person's sense of smell. I would challenge you to perform said blind test on the pickled red herring vs the beetroot salad before proceeding any further.Basically, if our senses of hearing is so lost if we isolate it - how useful is it to ascertain that we can't differentiate between gear in a blind test? All it would tell us is essentially that humans sense of hearing sucks. It doesn't seem to say a whole lot about whether or not there actually is a difference in sound, but rather that we can't discern a difference in a blind test. But in the same way I would hesitatet to say that the difference in smell between lets say pickled herring and beetroot salad is just bias and voodoo because a person couldn't smell the difference in a blind test - and thus no difference in smell actually exists - , I wouldn't say that a lack of discernment between equipment in blind test means that there isn't any difference in sound.
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It's the same reason why so many people have to wear glasses. They actually have perfect sight, but in a controlled test with the unusual pressure of someone watching them, only being able to use one eye at a time, and they have to read letters or sentences picked by the examiner instead of texts they know well. It's made to fail the subjects! They don't stand a chance.
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I'm not saying its actually like this - I'm just trying to understand if there is any logic in the argument.Your example is literally a red herring. No one would be unable to tell the herring and the salad apart. You picked these items presumably because they sound so different, that if someone were not able to tell the two apart, the blame automatically goes to the test instead of the person's sense of smell. I would challenge you to perform said blind test on the pickled red herring vs the beetroot salad before proceeding any further.
There’s two huge holes in your logic here:My core idea is essentially that we have developed to use our senses in combination. When we consider if something is safe to eat, we might use sight, smell and touch to decide. If we lose one sense, our judgement becomes less precise. If we isolate one sense, we are easily fooled.
No, NOT right! Firstly, “our senses” are not used to perceive music, only our ONE sense of hearing is used to perceive music. As mentioned, our sense of touch can contribute but we can’t sense the music with our sense of touch, only the relatively loud low freq components of it, if/when they exist.Obviously our senses are used to perceive music. Thats the entire idea behind much of psychoacoustics, right?
What is “far fetched to think”, in fact way, way beyond “far fetched to think” is that you (probably derived from some audiophile marketer) have thought of a question that not one of the million or so highly educated scientists/researchers in the 165 year history of psychoacoustics has ever thought of. In fact, a more extreme example of the Dunning-Kruger Effect is hard to imagine! Do you even know what blind testing is, why it exists, what the protocols of the various (double) blind tests are and why they exist? Double blind tests and their required protocols exist precisely because scientists/researchers asked themselves; “What other ways might our judgment/perception be “clouded” and what can be done to mitigate them?”!But my point is that while our judgement is clouded a whole lot due to psychoacoustics in sighted testing, is it that far fetched to think that our judgement might be clouded in blind testing, too - just in another way?
Yes, smell plays a major role in taste, and blind tests remove identification but not sensory perception.The majority of the taste sensation is smell, just ask anyone who has lost their sense of smell. In fact, blind tests for things like wine tasting (or indeed audio) do not remove our senses from the test, they just remove identification of the product, e.g. different amps, 16/44 v 24/96 and so on.
It's also kind of what we're saying. People will easily assume their impression only comes from sound when it doesn't. If I try to put myself in your shoes and consider the issues of blind listening (which can be numerous depending on the method and the cues we're trying to test, nobody is saying it's absolute and perfect), I still see no reason why a casual subjective impression would be more trustworthy. Casual impressions, because they involve more variables that are not controlled and typically not even considered, we can't ever be sure that the resulting experience was caused by sound alone(if sound even had anything to do with it). And yet the experience being a direct result of sound is what 99% of people arguing with us are claiming. That's the core issue, people think that feeling sure of our feelings is proof the sound change is real. And yet there can be many ways to trick someone into feeling a sound difference with no sound difference, just by altering non audio variables the listener will experience along with sound(or by changing the volume level a little). We agree that the experience is a bigger, wider thing than just sound through our ears, but most people don't seem to see the obvious issue is creates for casual impressions that feel like sound differences. They have no way to test when they're wrong, and the more casual the experience, the smaller the actual sound difference, the more likely they/we are to be wrong.I'm not saying its actually like this - I'm just trying to understand if there is any logic in the argument.
My core idea is essentially that we have developed to use our senses in combination. When we consider if something is safe to eat, we might use sight, smell and touch to decide. If we lose one sense, our judgement becomes less precise. If we isolate one sense, we are easily fooled. I'm sure you've seen videos of people putting their hand down in a covered box, and there are a bunch of different objects down there - and the person is freaking out thinking a fuzzy ball and a couple of matches are a giant tarantula. Clearly, if we can't see something our sense of touch doesn't tell us too much.
Obviously our senses are used to perceive music. Thats the entire idea behind much of psychoacoustics, right? Now, these senses and our perception doesn't say a whole lot about the objective reality of the sound coming from the headphones etc. But my point is that while our judgement is clouded a whole lot due to psychoacoustics in sighted testing, is it that far fetched to think that our judgement might be clouded in blind testing, too - just in another way?
Those people don't smell sounds, they feel like they do. Nothing literal here, they just happen to have a brain that misinterprets even more than normal. Random average people already have colors impacting taste, sight affecting everything else, be it balance, taste, or sound. And sound sometimes affecting what they/we see. Multisensory interactions happen to all of us, they're part of why we argue that to test audibility, we need to strictly control non audio variables(removing them or making sure they remain the same).Casual reminder that synaesthetes exist. Some people do quite literally smell and/or taste sound
That’s impossible. Sound is a varying pressure wave traveling through a medium (air in our case). Sound waves do not magically change the chemical composition of the air they travel through, so there is literally no difference to smell or taste. Synaesthetes therefore (completely literally!) cannot not sense sound with their nose or tongue (smell or taste sound), they just have the perception/experience of smelling sound when their auditory system is stimulated, without actually/literally smelling it.Casual reminder that synaesthetes exist. Some people do quite literally smell and/or taste sound