Davesrose
Headphoneus Supremus
- Joined
- Oct 20, 2006
- Posts
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If regulars decided to have two different labels for an audiophile that has subjective bias (audiophool) vs one that enjoys music (that also wants argument over science), would forum activity continue to go down?I think we should be more distinct with the words audiophile and audiophool. 71 dB explained what the difference is above.
For example, we shouldn’t say “audiophile marketing”, we should say “audiophool marketing”. Not every audiophile is an audiophool.
I've sometimes noticed exchanges in which a new poster posts an impression of their setup, and can quickly be dismissed as just having a bias. A few times I've found that enough questions were asked about their gear to figure out that even if they did a DBT, they would hear differences. An example I remember was a member claiming that DTS sounded better than Dolby Atmos with their headphones. They were quickly dismissed as not understanding that their gear was processing 3D audio as stereo, and it should sound the same. I found out that their TV model is one of the few that accepts DTS:X streaming services (which there's not very many titles available in) as well as Dolby Atmos. Most TVs (and streamers) just recognize the Dolby Atmos track: apparently there are a few models that give you the choice of choosing DTS or Dolby Atmos. DTS:X (which IMAX has an association with) can sound different than Dolby Atmos, because they are different sources (where DTS:IMAX is a different mix with higher levels).
I realize that there can be a fine line between having good faith and trying to gather objective data, vs trying to have an exchange with someone who is only concerned with their subjective impressions. But if new posters come on, have good faith as to why their setup might sound different, will they more quickly be dismissed as an audiophool? If so, then it will more be a place where it's more a place for mocking [audiophiles/audiophools], that at times might have useful science.