It's not an issue of whether or not cables make a difference, gentlemen, it's the matter of whether a cable of gauge X and length Y is perceived as sounding different from a cable of gauge X and length Y costing four times as much. If the inductance, resistance, capacitance, etc. are the same, it is not empirically valid to claim a difference. If there is a change, it would inevitably be measurable - the human ear isn't a very sensitive instrument, unfortunately, and has long been behind the capabilities of even inexpensive acoustic measurement equipment. I imagine any differences perceived by a listener as vast would easily be measurable as it would indicate significant sonic difference, would it not?
If it is a difference, is it an objective one? That is, is it a difference anyone can hear, not just the owner of the equipment? If so, why can't it be measured and recorded? What, makers especially, do you propose defeats measurements but not the ear? Sonics aren't unknown nor unknowable, but the level of mysticism with which an acoustic wave is treated bothers me to posting.