Quote:
Originally posted by shivohum
So then, as per my example of the transistor radio, can *any increase* in sound quality or features be said to be proportional to the initial increase in quality from going from no sound to having some sound? It seems to me that the leap from no sound to some sound is much larger even than from $1 sound to $50,000 sound.
If by spending anywhere from $0.00 to $0.49, you have a sound quality of 0 (you can't afford even a cheap transistor radio), and then at $0.50 you have a sound quality of 1, isn't that unmeasurably - 1/0 - (perhaps infinitely) better and thus pretty much unmatcheable in % term returns by any more money spent? |
Well, I suppose you could argue that the first "purchase" (from having none to having some) is a bigger step than any other "purchase" -- if this is true, then diminishing marginal returns sets in immediately. However, for most products, that's not the case.
The other thing to keep in mind (and I didn't mention this earlier for simplicity's sake) is that all of these theories are based on what is called "utility" -- the "value" that an individual gets out of the products he/she purchases. So the graph of cost vs. return isn't really the best graph. A more telling graph for individual purchasers is cost vs. utility. In other words, how much value THAT person thinks he/she is getting for each additional $ spent.
In the example you have, you made an assumption that the person values being able to *hear* music at all over increases in the fidelity of that music. If this is true, then that particular person's utility curve is going to show diminishing marginal returns from the get-go -- as you said, just being able to buy a cheap radio and hear music is the biggest leap. However, there are many people who take the first step -- having a radio -- for granted, and for them, the utility they get from buying that little transister is nil. For these people, it's going to take a lot longer for diminishing marginal returns to take effect.
And that's where the "audiophile" comes in -- a lot of people are truly excited and pleased by the minimal increases in fidelity they get at the margins of high-end audio. If I play my headphone system for my better half, even though it clearly offers 3-4 times the performance of our living room stereo, she gets very little enjoyment or added value. But I have a friend (we all do
) who get so excited over the tiny increase in sound quality that a $500 accessory gives him, that he got a whole heck of a lot of value/utility out of those 500 bucks. So each person's utility curve is going to be different, and the point at which marginal returns begin to diminish is really different for each person.
Did I confuse the matter even more?