VNandor
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The difference would need to be more than 3dB to be at all audible, and anything under 5 would be pretty small. I don’t see any difference between the responses you’re citing there in the last chart.
Differences under 3dB in commercially recorded music are too small to matter. 3dB with test tones is different than 3dB in a narrow band of frequencies with recorded music. Numbers are meaningless without context. It’s a good idea to research thresholds of human perception and experiment with sound editing programs so you know what the numbers actually sound like.
Although I agree a high-Q notch or peak would be imperceptible with most music, it's a moot point because a lot of music fills up the spectrum fairly uniformly and the curves @ADUHF is talking about are showing a wide band attenuation of frequencies. The differences between these targets are defintely enough to cause a change in sound that could be easily heard. Maybe you should take your own advice an try to dial in some EQ. Just by eyeballing the chart, the high frequencies start to gently roll off at about ~1kHz and goes to ~-2.5dB at ~10kHz. The bass seems to be differing below ~200Hz and the difference eventually maxes out around ~2.5dB at ~60Hz. I think that would be a fair representation of the differences between the two responses. There's no way you wouldn't hear any differences if the music you use contains enough high and low frequencies to begin with. I know I do.
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