PhilS
Headphoneus Supremus
- Joined
- Jul 17, 2004
- Posts
- 3,158
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- 13
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Originally Posted by sonicm Throw away the bad money? Why is it 'bad'? Your paying the neighbor back makes it legal. |
Originally Posted by stewtheking Did you think this up yourself? |
Originally Posted by chesebert This is what I replied in my PM to Zenith "The answer is $100 $90 from the loss (substantive loss) $10 from loss by lost profit (lost volume doctrine, since the headphone shop has an infinite supply of headphones if he sold the headphone to anyone else he would have made $10). You may also call this opportunity cost, but its really lost profit or lost volume to be precise. " |
Originally Posted by PhilS You're still making assumptions that are not really set forth with any clarity in the initial hypothetical. For example, stating in the initial thread that "You bought a headphone for $80 and plans [sic] to sell it for $90" and that the seller is a dealer doesn't necessarily provide enough information to conclude that there is a $90 FMV, and in turn a $90 "substantive loss." It may be that this is what you intended to convey, but it would be more clear if the hypothetical stated that the FMV of the phones was $90, or whatever it is supposed to be. Also, the "infinite supply of headphones" is not in the original hypothetical either. In event, this was a good brain teaser. ![]() |