[crazyface]

*and by Romanized I means transliterated into Roman characters

Hi!

So I've been kind of confused about this lately -

Any educated person knows the basic rules of Latin pronunciation - and in countries speaking Latin-based languages, even the uneducated know!

So, if it was the original big bad boys of Latin - the Romans - who transliterated Greek names and words into Roman characters, why don't we pronounce (in English-speaking countries at least) Greek names and words according to the Latin rules?

For example:

Instead of Plato as "Play-toh," oughtn't it to be, "Plaht-oh?"

And when it comes to derivative words, then, shouldn't it be diabetes as "dee-ohb-aytays" instead of "dye-uh-bee-teez?"

Stuff like that.

Does modern Greek have the same rules of pronunciation as ancient Greek? That would make it easier to figure out.

Thanks for reading, bye!