Budley007
500+ Head-Fier
- Joined
- May 29, 2004
- Posts
- 752
- Likes
- 11
Howdy folks,
I work for a chemical refining company. As part of an ongoing health/wellness monitoring program, I have to submit to an audiogram every year. (for those that don't know, it's a hearing test that basically sends measured signals to both left and right ears at variable frequency and amplitude to measure a person's sensitivity at each given frequency range. The purpose is to compare annual test results to determine if a person's hearing is degrading over time from constant exposure to noise in our work environment. whew!)
My question is this. Has anyone considered an audiogram as proof that anyone's opinion of a given audio product, (with regards to how it sounds), is relative and unique to some degree? I mean if I for instance had a measurable lack of sensitivity to sound above 15KHz, wouldn't my review of an amp or headphones be less useful to those without this problem?
You guys would know about this than anyone else. Just curious.
I work for a chemical refining company. As part of an ongoing health/wellness monitoring program, I have to submit to an audiogram every year. (for those that don't know, it's a hearing test that basically sends measured signals to both left and right ears at variable frequency and amplitude to measure a person's sensitivity at each given frequency range. The purpose is to compare annual test results to determine if a person's hearing is degrading over time from constant exposure to noise in our work environment. whew!)
My question is this. Has anyone considered an audiogram as proof that anyone's opinion of a given audio product, (with regards to how it sounds), is relative and unique to some degree? I mean if I for instance had a measurable lack of sensitivity to sound above 15KHz, wouldn't my review of an amp or headphones be less useful to those without this problem?
You guys would know about this than anyone else. Just curious.
