headroom products measurements
Jan 20, 2009 at 3:09 AM Thread Starter Post #1 of 10

pompon

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This web page show differents graphs with headphones.

We see how they test that.

They say us how to interpret the graph.

What I wonder ...
We use a Head Acoustics Artificial Head Measurement System to perform headphone measurements in compliance with industry standards. Wolfgang, as we call him, has soft outer ears just like you and I.
...
You’ll notice all headphone measurements have a lot of jagged ups & downs (peaks & valleys) in the high frequencies; this is normal and mostly due to reflection cancellations in the folds and ridges in the outer part of the ear. Ideally however, the ups and downs of the frequency response should average out to a flat line. Large peaks or valleys over 3kHz in width usually indicate poor headphone response,...

Their artificial head / ear will not produce the same dips because we all have different ears form ... So the dips will be different.

The perception can be different in somes way ?
I wonder if they used 3-4 different head models to test that ... :wink:

Having sense ?
 
Jan 20, 2009 at 5:53 AM Post #2 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by pompon /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Having sense ?


Yes.

I guess testing them on the same dummy head gives some frame of reference.
 
Jan 21, 2009 at 1:56 PM Post #4 of 10
In addition, peoples' ears are relatively similar, even if the exact folds and things are in slightly different places or at different angles.
 
Jan 21, 2009 at 4:12 PM Post #5 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by tintin47 /img/forum/go_quote.gif
In addition, peoples' ears are relatively similar, even if the exact folds and things are in slightly different places or at different angles.


Exactly. Which is why Binaural works, if our ears varied even more than they do already our brain would get lost trying to interpret some other ears' signal.
smily_headphones1.gif
 
Jan 21, 2009 at 7:17 PM Post #6 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by moogoob /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Exactly. Which is why Binaural works, if our ears varied even more than they do already our brain would get lost trying to interpret some other ears' signal.
smily_headphones1.gif



But binaural is more about soundstaging. Different ears still locate sounds basically the same. WRT to reproducing the full spectrum of audio, different ears potentially will hear that reproduction differently.
 
Jan 21, 2009 at 7:22 PM Post #7 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by Budgie /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Using only one head allows a valid comparison between headphones, relative to each other.


It would be interesting to see if different dummy heads give significantly different results. If they do, the OP's suggestion could be useful provided they test all headphones on all the dummy heads and list the results for each head.
 
Jan 21, 2009 at 7:53 PM Post #8 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by Arjisme /img/forum/go_quote.gif
It would be interesting to see if different dummy heads give significantly different results. If they do, the OP's suggestion could be useful provided they test all headphones on all the dummy heads and list the results for each head.


That is true, but I am sure that it is already time consuming. I think that they are doing us a huge favor in how far they are going already, and that it would be unnecessarily complicated and difficult to understand were they to have different models of ears and the such. Ears are generally the same. Yes, your ear might add 1dB to the treble at 8kHz over mine, but just deal with it, because you shouldn't be buying or comparing headphones with freq. response graphs anyway.

The graphs are useful in certain situations, such as "I have a k701. What could I expect to be different frequency-wise in the RS-1? Oh, the grados have significantly more bass, and a larger treble spike at..." but you would not sit there and look at the graph for 1 or 2db differences in the frequency response. It just doesn't make sense because it wouldn't be useful.
 
Jan 22, 2009 at 3:38 AM Post #9 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by tintin47 /img/forum/go_quote.gif
That is true, but I am sure that it is already time consuming. I think that they are doing us a huge favor in how far they are going already, and that it would be unnecessarily complicated and difficult to understand were they to have different models of ears and the such. Ears are generally the same. Yes, your ear might add 1dB to the treble at 8kHz over mine, but just deal with it, because you shouldn't be buying or comparing headphones with freq. response graphs anyway.

The graphs are useful in certain situations, such as "I have a k701. What could I expect to be different frequency-wise in the RS-1? Oh, the grados have significantly more bass, and a larger treble spike at..." but you would not sit there and look at the graph for 1 or 2db differences in the frequency response. It just doesn't make sense because it wouldn't be useful.



Differences between ears are far more than 1dB. Also, binaural certainly isn't convincing to my ears. It's more convincing than plain mastered-for-speakers stereo, but certainly doesn't mimic real world listening. In terms of the graphs, though, the comparison is valid so long as you're just comparing between graphs in the same set (ie. HeadRoom's), and not making absolute judgements on them like some have been doing recently.
 
Jan 22, 2009 at 5:03 PM Post #10 of 10
Quote:

Originally Posted by tintin47 /img/forum/go_quote.gif
Ears are generally the same. Yes, your ear might add 1dB to the treble at 8kHz over mine, but just deal with it, because you shouldn't be buying or comparing headphones with freq. response graphs anyway.

The graphs are useful in certain situations, such as "I have a k701. What could I expect to be different frequency-wise in the RS-1? Oh, the grados have significantly more bass, and a larger treble spike at..." but you would not sit there and look at the graph for 1 or 2db differences in the frequency response. It just doesn't make sense because it wouldn't be useful.



You are making assumptions about what the differences would be. You may be correct, but I wouldn't know. That's why I added in my earlier comment the bit about "significant differences." If they exist (won't assume they do or don't), then the extra information would be useful, if available. I realize cost may prohibit that.

And the graphs either are useful or not. On the one hand you seem to be saying we shouldn't need the graphs but then you turn around and talk about how they can be useful. I think they are helpful.
 

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