AudioThief
500+ Head-Fier
- Joined
- Feb 15, 2017
- Posts
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Proving an absence of difference would be proving a negative. You can only listen using one set of ears at a time and prove that there is a difference. My rule of thumb for stuff like this is that biased opinions are so prevalent in home audio forums, I tune out opinions of people who can’t be bothered to make an effort to eliminate bias and perceptual error in their comparisons. I’ll just continue like Diogenes.
Thats true, but if you have two overkill powerful regular headphone amps, that have been made with high quality components in a competent design, they should sound the same, right? Say if I wanted to drive a pair of easily driven headphones, and one amp is powerful enough while the other one is twice as powerful as that again, would it make sense they sounded different? In my experience, amps sound literally identical to my ears as long as they have enough power. So while I can't prove there isn't a difference as such, I'd think one could conclude about the absence of difference if the specs are within certain parameters, if that makes sense?
I'm very non-technically gifted, so sorry for not understanding.