Nightslayer
500+ Head-Fier
- Joined
- May 9, 2010
- Posts
- 596
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- 13
I've always read in almost every forum dealing with full-sized headphones that amps are neccessary to "drive" a headphone, but up till this point I haven't exactly found the reason why this is so. Is it to do with volume (etc. on high impedance headphones) or other factors which I may not be aware of? I have a SR60 which can be driven fine from an iPod volume-wise, albeit with subpar soundquality due to the bad HP-out, but I'm sure this wouldn't be the case with Cowon players or others of the same ilk. Or would this not be a good standpoint to base my assumptions on, given the low 32Ohm (I think?) resistance of the SR60?