Sorry, I didn't mean to imply that because one can't think of a good explanation why one hears a difference that the difference doesn't exist (although there are plenty of examples where people do honestly convince themselves they here differences when there aren't any).
There are two problems in the audio community:
"I can't measure it, so it must not exist"
Of course, you better make sure whatever you are measuring is actually related to the audible effect in question...
"I can tell what color the chassis was painted by listening to the amp, this is because of microphonics caused by absorbtion of light modulated by the acoustic waves. The light passes through the air and then hits the amp, the color of the amp effects how it is absorbed, how could it not effect the sound?"
Just because you can claim some chain of cause and effect doesn't make it detectable or reasonable. And how we percieve sound can be drastically effected by things other than an acoustic wave (namely, for example, by how much money recently exited our wallet)...
Anywho, sorry for the gross over generalization, I wasn't trying to place myself in the first camp, but was mainly whining that questions like that posed often bring out members of the second.
And then just to make me look like a fool, all the responses that then did show up were reasonable and well founded...