yes but some/most of them arent, so it "matters" if you go with 16 bit only
What you’re describing is a marketing issue, not a difference between 16 and 24 bit. Sometimes, a somewhat different master is created for 24bit release to the 16bit release, in order to justify a higher price for the so called “hi-res” version. This would not exist if audiophiles were not so easily fooled by such a simple marketing trick and it’s easy to demonstrate it’s just a marketing ploy rather than an actual audible difference between 16 and 24bit by dithering that 24bit master down to 16bit and noting the lack of any audible difference.
[1] well just take a minimum phase filter which would be the easiest example since it suffers from phaseshift, take a higher samplerate and the phaseshift is truely outside the audible range, not so much with 16 bit 44,1khz … [2] same goes for early slope filters, or filters that start so late that there is aliasing which might be audible
1. Again, we do “
take a higher sample rate and the phase shift is truly outside the audible range” and that is with 16/44! You don’t seem to have heard of oversampling despite it having been around since digital audio was first released to the public and it being explained to you!
2. That’s nonsense as there are no converters with an “
early slope filter, or filters that start so late” that could cause audible aliasing!
The actual “Digital Audio Theory” calls for a Whittaker-Shannon Interpolation Filter. The “theory” you’ve quoted is simply a (mistaken) idea you’ve come up with. So contrary to your (FALSE) assertion, the theory does NOT backup your assertion, the only thing that does is the “incorrect idea” that you yourself have invented!
the effects of masters/dac filters are not inaudible
The effects of an anti-alias filter that maybe applied during mastering are completely inaudible. Have you even tested any mastering anti-alias filters? And so are the anti-imaging filters in DACs, unless for some bizarre marketing reason they’ve been deliberately designed to be audible.
because the change is obvious if you know what to listen for, for example between linear and minimum phase
Knowing what to listen for is easy. For example, it’s trivially easy to hear the pre-ringing of a linear phase high-pass filter set at say 200Hz with a near full-scale transient peaking at 200Hz. However, hearing that effect/difference with a low-pass filter, at a far lower level and at 22kHz is NOT. In fact, just it’s far lower level alone renders it virtually inaudible, let alone that it occurs at 22kHz which is outside of human audibility anyway.
i understand what you guys say but your "facts" of inaudibility are sometimes simply wrong..
It’s not “our facts” of inaudibility, it’s the facts proven (and re-proven) by science over the course of a century or more! Human hearing extends to around 20kHz in the case of children (with perfect hearing), around 16kHz in the case of adults and lower in the case of older adults. To prove that an effect not only at 22kHz but at a very low level is audible, you’re going to need some extremely robust, reliable evidence. Without this, your claim the we/science is “simply wrong”, is just another BS claim! And just in case it’s not already painfully obvious, marketing and/or impressions from sighted listening tests are pretty much the exact opposite of robust, reliable evidence.
G