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I said that in my first responses to you. But I get that from the maker of the test head Tyl uses. All the specs are available for download. Granted he uses the II.3 analog head, not the newer HMS IV digital heads - but the accuracy has increased. My recollection is the older heads were +/- .3db (new ones are .1-.15). I'll have to see if I still have the old data sheet.
http://www.head-acoustics.de/downloads/eng/hms_IV/D1501e4_HMS_IV_1.pdf
These heads are for measuring the localized effects of sound in a given environment - and do this very well. But their primary function is for sound safety and large scale noise testing... as a result their precision measurements (fractions of decibles) leave a bit to be desired when we are talking about changes this small.
No. .4db over the entire range is the same as turning up the volume .4db - an inaudible difference.
.3 dB means nothing... That could be .0000001% error all the way up to a 100% error... I asked for a percent error (error rate is measured in %). .3dB is not a percent. By saying .3dB, you are basically saying that the measurements are either extremely accurate, or not accurate at all...
As for the .4dB over a frequency range, it isn't a constant, I should have said about .4dB over a frequency range. The differences still range, so it isn't entirely just putting up the volume. It's putting up the volume here, reducing it here, then putting it really up here, then down here... It adds up over that entire frequency range. The differences are not constant, so it isn't just increasing/decreasing volume. This inherant varying difference will change the shape of the entire signature, and in turn shape the music differently.
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Incorrect. Good data WILL change my mind. I just have not been presented with good data.
I own what I have liked over time. I've gotten rid of what I did not.
Belief is fine and all - provided you don't pretend that is the same as a fact. That's where we get into trouble.
Did you read Tyl's conclusions? They do not agree with you.
No. I'm saying that we observe these qualities does not mean we can attribute them to the headphones actually changing. There are other explanations - you yourself presented one.
You intimated I must have hearing damage or not know how to listen critically if I'm not hearing differences. I'm saying I don't have hearing damage (I have regular audiologist tests which prove it) and as a result of my job and experience as a (albeit subjectively) good professional musician in a demanding medium, I know how to listen critically.
If not hearing differences that nobody can prove are really there in the first place means to you I don't have good ears, then so be it.
This doesn't seem to be the case... as you still doubt every piece of data that is shot at you calling them all assertions, assumptions and just plain inaccurate.
Secondly, Tyl leaves the conclusion in question. He says basically that this one test alone cannot prove for or against. He doesn't say that the results disprove it, he doesn't say that the change proves it. Saying that his stance was against burn in is incorrect.
To add, I do wish Tyl would have continued measuring past 65 hours and gone up to 200+ hours to see the full scope of things... Since it really wasn't done, the information will remain inconclusive (I remember reading that these headphones needed 200+ hours to actually break in... Well, maybe they didn't change that much over the first 65 hours and made their major changes in the last 100 hours)... Another thing I wish he did was take multiple tests within each data set and found an average (to greatly reduce error). Again, there is always next time... I wish I had a head
I could test cheapos on my own to test
As for the hearing damage, that wasn't me, so I won't say anything about that except that my ears are as valid as your ears in terms of observations. My mission isn't to prove or disprove burn in, instead, I try to find a universal reason why people hear these differences and some do not. And I stand that my claim that I've made:
Burn in exist, it's different for different headphones, and some will be more apparent than others. The reason why people hear it, and some don't deals with our sensitivity to the change in change of sound (We are out of the 2D SPL vs Frequency graph now, and into the 3D time vs SPL vs Frequency graph) depicting change over time... Since everyone's sensitivity to this change is inconsistent, we will hear these changes differently. This includes the fact that many hear it, but also some don't. It also supports the idea that these drivers break in at the same rate since it's based on our sensitivity, if you can hear it, you'll hear the same change the same way each and every time (due to the 3D time vs SPL vs Frequency graph that is stable; we know it's stable due to people who hear these differences that say they hear the same things around the same time period).
Now the reason why I believe this is
more accurate than other ideas/hypothesis:
- It's universal, it takes into account everyone's opinion both the people who can hear it, and people who can't.
- It's universal across all headphones, whether they change quick, or take a long time to change.
- It takes something that hasn't been taken into account yet, a person's sensitivity to change (which is related to his/her decay in a certain noise; faster decay = less sensitivity).
- It brings time into the equation. I honestly do not know who no one has yet to bring that into the equation... The whole thing is based on time, you can't talk about break/burn-in without a basis in time.
- It avoids the entire psychological appeal since each person's psyche is different, they should hear that change in a different rate (which based on other observations isn't true <= This argument there is the main reason why the psychological idea doesn't work).
I have yet to see you actually make a hypothesis of this sort that takes into account
everyone's experiences, but also dodge and avoid the little problems with the ideas that have been presented in the past. Instead, you question accuracy of everything (literally throwing data out the window because it doesn't agree with you) and don't have any ideas to contribute of your own... I am curious to what you believe is happening (please don't say psychological/placebo since those would entail different experiences upon people who hear it which isn't the case).
Conclusion... Is my idea 100% accurate, heck no! But as of now, it may be the most universal out there that takes into account
all data found (whether or not you believe it's accurate or not is different) since I still stand firm about the belief that each of our observations are accurate (your ears are as valid as mine, but there must be a
reason for these differences). And as stated, the reason, the core difference between you and I is actually gonna' be the sensitivity to a change in sound (which is the basis of my hypothesis).