tacgunner1
Head-Fier
- Joined
- Sep 29, 2013
- Posts
- 86
- Likes
- 10
During a psychology class, I came across a graph displaying the sensitivity to frequencies humans posses.
It was similar to the attached graph. As our sensitivity to high and low frequencies is lesser, we would thus (to the extent of my knowledge) require a superior amplitude of these frequencies to compensate. However, I observed that on practically all headphones frequency response charts I have seen, the lower frequencies are either linear or below the same intensity as the mid-range, and high frequencies drop off as well. Would that not mean that the lower and higher frequencies would be almost a whisper in contrast to the mid-range due to our lesser perception of these? I do not know wherein the issue lies: with my perception of how things SHOULD work, or if there is a factor I ignored. Could someone please enlighten me?
It was similar to the attached graph. As our sensitivity to high and low frequencies is lesser, we would thus (to the extent of my knowledge) require a superior amplitude of these frequencies to compensate. However, I observed that on practically all headphones frequency response charts I have seen, the lower frequencies are either linear or below the same intensity as the mid-range, and high frequencies drop off as well. Would that not mean that the lower and higher frequencies would be almost a whisper in contrast to the mid-range due to our lesser perception of these? I do not know wherein the issue lies: with my perception of how things SHOULD work, or if there is a factor I ignored. Could someone please enlighten me?