Steve Eddy
Member of the Trade: The Audio Guild
Aka: TempAccount555
- Joined
- Sep 28, 2003
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By stating that "no difference exists" as if it were a proven fact, he is essentially saying that I am wrong.
Please quote where he stated that unequivocally.
He could have said something like "all of the evidence and results of studies I've seen seem to suggest that the difference shouldn't be audible" if he preferred to be less contentious.
That's funny. By my reading, that's precisely what he said.
He wrote "All of the measurements and blind tests I've seen indicate that it should be audibly perfect, and I tend to believe data over random anecdotes."
How is that any different than your example and how the hell do you read that as "no difference exists"?
And, while it's true that some studies have indeed failed to prove that differences in digital filters are actually audible, the few actual test results people keep trotting out are rather thin.
Well instead of just hand-waving in here, why not get to work and add to the body of research? High end audio is long on talk but conspicuously absent when it comes to action. But I guess as long as all it takes is talk to make a sale, there's really no incentive, is there?
And that's fine. Just don't make out like you have any interest in expanding our knowledge and understanding. Otherwise you're just muddying the waters.
Face it, the fact that two dozen volunteers were unable to hear something, using their own equipment, and their own sample material, really doesn't constitute "ironclad proof that no audible difference exists" - at least not on the planet where I live.
Except that the person you were replying to said absolutely no such thing. Which brings me back to my original point. I think you're being rather disingenuous.
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