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Impedance

post #1 of 2
9/18/12 at 7:29pm
Thread Starter 

Quick question for the experts (my apologies if this is a no-brainer) :

 

Does an amp connected to the analog-out of a source automatically render the source's output impedance irrelevant, thereby causing its own output impedance to take over? Like, would a <0ohms amp works as 0ohms even when connected to a 10ohms output on a device?

 

Example:

 

iPod headphone out -> Portable amp -> headphones connected to headphone out of portable amp


Edited by whereas - 9/18/12 at 7:30pm
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post #2 of 2
9/18/12 at 8:54pm

Yes.  That's a main draw of using a portable amp, since some devices just muck up the response of some IEMs because of output impedance issues.

 

In the example, the load the iPod output sees becomes the portable amp's input impedance, which is usually thousands of ohms.  The output impedance of the iPod then effectively does not matter.  It's the portable amp that would be driving the headphones (in series with its own output impedance).

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