Quick question for the experts (my apologies if this is a no-brainer) :
Does an amp connected to the analog-out of a source automatically render the source's output impedance irrelevant, thereby causing its own output impedance to take over? Like, would a <0ohms amp works as 0ohms even when connected to a 10ohms output on a device?
iPod headphone out -> Portable amp -> headphones connected to headphone out of portable amp
Edited by whereas - 9/18/12 at 7:30pm