Why does it matter if headphones have a frequency range below 20Hz and above 20kHz?

Discussion in 'Sound Science' started by keyboardwarrior, Nov 29, 2011.
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  1. hankypanky2
    I listen to House and EDM music and my Steez Effects headphones have 
    Frequency​
    6 - 28,000 Hz

     
    And I get chills down my spine when I'm listening to it on the go.
     
  2. liamstrain
     
    That has to do with the interaction of your cognitive processes and what you hear, with the hypothalamus, not necessarily what you don't hear (or sub bass, or anything). I get shivers like that when I hear the sound of a brush on canvas. It's subjective emotional response and physiological arousal at a low level, triggering the hypothalamus --> adrenaline. 

    *shrug*  people are funny. 
     
  3. SilentFrequency
    Maybe musics human emotional responses delivered by whatever method just can't be measured objectively?
     
  4. bigshot
     
    That is half a response rating. Without the +/- dB part it doesn't mean a whole heck of a lot.
     
  5. kraken2109
    Exactly - it means nothing. Anything can be made to vibrate at any frequency, therefore anything can have a near-infinite frequency response.
    What matters is how flat it is.
     
  6. Head Injury

    My favorite example of this kind of frequency response spec is Grado. As you move up their product range, they advertise a larger and larger range of frequencies, from 20 - 20,000 on the SR60 to 5 - 50,000 on the PS1000. The actual extension is virtually the same. Both are down to about -40 dB at 20 Hz and -35 dB at 20 kHz. And neither is exactly linear at any frequency. It's even more controversial because they've always been rumored to use the same drivers throughout most of their product line, and indeed the SR225 measures nearly identical to the PS1000 when equipped with the same pads.
     
    If you still think this spec means anything after seeing that, you're being silly.
     
  7. SilentFrequency

    I actually checked pricing of the two Grado headphones you mentioned and they are totally different in a major way.

    So basically if you purchased the SR225, they sound the same as the PS1000?
     
  8. liamstrain
     
    When you put on the same pads, they get close. Grado's argument is they use drivers which match each other better, as you go up the tiers, as well as tuning in the cups. I happen to prefer the RS1s over my older 225's - but they are very similar sounding headphones. 
     
  9. SilentFrequency

    Wow, I'm really surprised that the price difference does not correlate with the sound of the headphones you mention but I guess maybe they sound different enough for some to choose the more expensive model.
     
  10. marla
    It's not true that humans can only hear 20-20,000 Hz. I'd like to know where you heard that. Mine is beyond that at both ends. I really like bass sounds too so that's most important to me. I have some JVC headphones that go down to 16 Hz which is great but the headphone jack on my phone just wore out, so now I'm looking for Bluetooth ones. Back in the 80's I had some that not only went down to 16, but up to 40,000. That was really great. But its not just being able to hear all the sound created, when a note plays beyond the speakers frequency response, it comes out as static and that is really annoying to me.
     
  11. bigshot
    How far beyond 20kHz do you think you can hear, and how large of a range do you think that your supposed extended frequency perception represents? Did you determine your ability to hear extended super audible frequencies with tones at a fixed volume?
     
  12. kraken2109
    None of what you've posted is correct.
     
  13. dprimary
    I high pass all my music at 21kHz and leave it blasting all day and night I have yet to get any complaints.
     
  14. castleofargh Contributor

    so I get it you're past your 40, yet you try to make us believe that your hearing is beyond 20hz-20khz. nice try space alien!
     
     
  15. bigshot
    I thought it was interesting that he seemed to think because back in the 70s his speakers were advertised as going up to 40kHz, that meant that he could hear up that high himself. I'm trying to wrap my head around the logic of that, but I'm having trouble with it. Is he saying that since he paid good money for speakers that go up to 40kHz, he damn well better get his money's worth and hear it?
     
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