Tubes versus Solid State for Electronica
Apr 19, 2009 at 9:13 PM Post #16 of 20

punk_guy182

1000+ Head-Fier
Joined
Mar 22, 2008
Posts
1,065
Likes
10
I strongly recommend an SS amp for electronica.
Something like the Compass would me great. It is a very fast, detailed and dynamic amp.
It also has the capacity to switch jumpers in order to get a more smooth or bright sound.
 
Apr 19, 2009 at 9:17 PM Post #17 of 20

upstateguy

Headphoneus Supremus
Joined
Dec 20, 2004
Posts
4,067
Likes
162
Quote:

Originally Posted by Catharsis /img/forum/go_quote.gif

...Personally, the BIGGEST sound difference I have encountered in the hardware chain is the CD itself. I know its hard to believe, but some albums are recorded with sibilance, others with a "soft treble", others are sharp and staccato, while other albums are rich and full.



Hiya C

I couldn't agree with you more.
darthsmile.gif


USG
 
Apr 22, 2009 at 6:06 PM Post #18 of 20

Catharsis

500+ Head-Fier
Joined
Jul 9, 2008
Posts
617
Likes
27
I think I might have to start a new thread for what I'm about to say:

We talk alot about tubes and tube amps and how they distort the sound in a pleasing way (for most). Now, here's what I'm having trouble with.

First, class A amps are designed to give a linear response to amplification. If we take the Little Dot MKIII for example, it has a frequency response from 12hz-100khz with a variance of +/-1db (I'm assuming with stock tubes). This is extremely flat, and most audio engineers would say that nowadays, a good class A amp measures a very flat FQ response. The FQ response of the headphones / speakers will alter the original singal to a more considerable degree. Despite this knowledge, we argue incessantly over which tube amp is neutral or transparent. Is this arguement worthy of arguing?

It is widely assumed that the total harmonic distortion (THD) is the reason tube amps deliver such a different sound signature relative to solid state. The measurements clearly show that SS has distortion levels that are far below 1% (e.g. 00001%). Whereas, tube amps measure distortion levels as approximately 0.15% (still very low)

If we consider that amp x and amp y both measure with an extremely flat FQ response, any differences in sound quality must either be products of distortion that is unique to each amp, and / or each tube. Am I correct on this?

All my attempts to achieve neutrality are more to do with characteristics UNRELATED to FQ response such as attack, decay, distortion etc. In fact, isn't transient response relative to the ability of a transducer / diaphragm to respond to a signal and return to it's original velocity (zero)? How can a class A amp, which merely adjusts the amplitude of a wave in a linear fashion, have any bearing on characteristcs such as attack and decay?

Your help is much appreciated!
 
Apr 22, 2009 at 6:27 PM Post #19 of 20

upstateguy

Headphoneus Supremus
Joined
Dec 20, 2004
Posts
4,067
Likes
162
Quote:

Originally Posted by Catharsis /img/forum/go_quote.gif

I think I might have to start a new thread for what I'm about to say:

We talk alot about tubes and tube amps and how they distort the sound in a pleasing way (for most). Now, here's what I'm having trouble with.

First, class A amps are designed to give a linear response to amplification. If we take the Little Dot MKIII for example, it has a frequency response from 12hz-100khz with a variance of +/-1db (I'm assuming with stock tubes). This is extremely flat, and most audio engineers would say that nowadays, a good class A amp measures a very flat FQ response. The FQ response of the headphones / speakers will alter the original singal to a more considerable degree. Despite this knowledge, we argue incessantly over which tube amp is neutral or transparent. Is this arguement worthy of arguing?

It is widely assumed that the total harmonic distortion (THD) is the reason tube amps deliver such a different sound signature relative to solid state. The measurements clearly show that SS has distortion levels that are far below 1% (e.g. 00001%). Whereas, tube amps measure distortion levels as approximately 0.15% (still very low)

If we consider that amp x and amp y both measure with an extremely flat FQ response, any differences in sound quality must either be products of distortion that is unique to each amp, and / or each tube. Am I correct on this?

All my attempts to achieve neutrality are more to do with characteristics UNRELATED to FQ response such as attack, decay, distortion etc. In fact, isn't transient response relative to the ability of a transducer / diaphragm to respond to a signal and return to it's original velocity (zero)? How can a class A amp, which merely adjusts the amplitude of a wave in a linear fashion, have any bearing on characteristcs such as attack and decay [and sound stage]?

Your help is much appreciated!



Hi C

I'll let the others who know much more about the science of how that might work handle your question, but even more perplexing are claims that a piece of wire can have a similar bearing on "those characteristics" as well as act like a tone control.

USG
 
Apr 23, 2009 at 1:33 AM Post #20 of 20

Max F

500+ Head-Fier
Joined
Nov 30, 2005
Posts
632
Likes
11
And couple that to the fact that the ear/brain doesn't hear things flat anyway. We are definitely focused on frequencies that help us communicate, find prey, and avoid being eaten.
 

Users who are viewing this thread

Top