I don’t have to do a abx blinded test to realize that in real world scenario where I’m focusing on the music + the distortion noise wouldn’t be as obvious + I usually listen at ~70db, -40db is as good as inaudible.
I am trying not to post anything in this thread because I am so non-expert. So I will only ask questions. A few things are puzzling me. Aside from the general idea that harmonic distortion is generally not audible on decent modern solid state amps, are we not leaving some unsettled or unverified matters on the table?
Is this a thread about harmonic distortion?
Doesn’t the cited video state that you should download the samples because YouTube will compress the files? Would you believe me if I told you that I get absurd results with the video through YouTube even casually listening through an iPad speaker, extremely similar to what @silvernote was reporting? Do you think this might be due to the YouTube compression? If so would you think that listening to the test on my iPad remotely achieves the intent of the test, as opposed to downloading the files and making a blind comparison?
Could someone please provide a reference for the idea that lower-order even harmonic distortion is less euphonic than higher order harmonic distortion? Doesn’t a lot of music use parallel octaves because of their pleasing effect? So why would 2nd order harmonic distortion (wouldn’t that be distortion one octave up?) not be euphonic?
What level of harmonic distortion is typical for a pair of headphones?
What level of harmonic distortion is typical for a pair of loudspeakers?
How does this compare to the amount of harmonic distortion being created by a competent modern solid state amp?
Can someone give me an example of a properly operating modern solid state speaker amplifier being used as intended and not clipping and not being audibly transparent over loudspeakers when listening to music?
Don’t tube amps sometimes introduce impedance anomalies so severe as to introduce audible changes in frequency response when driving a pair of loudspeakers that is not a good impedance match for that particular amp? Could this change in frequency response be mistaken for harmonic distortion in those circumstances?