Quote:
Originally Posted by GAD /img/forum/go_quote.gif
I searched, and I read, but I don't get this.
I have ER4Ps. I just got the p->s cable to try it out.
How can increasing the impedance of the path be a good thing? I can see if the natural impedance of the drivers were higher, but to me it seems counter-intuitive that making the impedance higher in the cable makes the drivers behave better. I would think lower impedance would be better.
Obviously I'm not an EE, but I am a ham and can grasp electrical concepts - I just don't have a lot of experience with audio electronics theory - I don't get this one.
Thanks,
GAD
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There's two different things at play here. Wires, coils, etc., have both resistance and impedance. Resistance is the measure of difficulty DC current will have passing through the conductor, and impedance is a measure of the difficulty AC current will have passing through the conductor.
The impedance of a motor's coil (speaker/IEM driver) changes with regards to the frequency (for AC signals). Generally the impedance rises with the frequency. A resistor, however, doesn't change (for AC or DC). So what happens is you're raising the overall resistance of the circuit with the resistor, such that a higher voltage will be required for a given current flow, across the frequency spectrum. The ratio of the current flow (between low freq. and high freq.) changes accordingly.
For example (numbers pulled from my ass):
No P->S adapter: 20hz -> 40ohms / 1khz -> 60ohms / 20khz -> 120ohms
With P->S adapter: 20hz -> 115ohms / 1khz -> 135ohms / 20khz -> 195ohms
(You just add the nominal impedance at whatever frequency you're measuring to the resistance of the resistor (75ohms)).
So you can see in this example, without the P->S adapter, the phones have 50% more impedance at 1khz than they do at 20hz (60ohms:40ohms), but with the adapter, they have less than 20% more (135ohms:115ohms).
Less impedance/resistance means more current flow, and more current flow means more volume. Hence, using P->S adapter should make less bass than without (in this example).
This example is exaggerated but I'm pretty sure that's what's happening. The adapter flattens out the frequency curve because the impedance change of the headphones (over the FR spectrum) is a less significant portion of the overall resistance.
Does this make any sense? I'm also not an EE.. so my understanding probably isn't perfect; any corrections welcome.