Can we burn-in a specific frequency range of the headphones?
Jul 31, 2011 at 2:22 PM Thread Starter Post #1 of 4

brat

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Do you think that we can burn-in a specific fr.range of our headphones by playing test tones in this range?
My logic is: we have one driver (most headphones at least) which reproduces all frequencies so it doesn't matter what frequency we play, the driver works and there is a burn-in proces that affects all frequencies. Am I wrong? :)
 
Aug 1, 2011 at 1:47 PM Post #3 of 4
Well, there's no question that at least part of it is mental; otherwise, how do you explain how fixed-armature IEMs "burn in" - when they physically can't. There are no moving parts. 
 
On the other hand, I'm not sure the issue is settled for break-in. There's lots more to learn.
 
 
Aug 4, 2011 at 5:22 AM Post #4 of 4
In my opinion, “burn in” is the loosening of the diaphragm,  and I would say, that if one where to play one section of the “spectrum” only it might make a difference as to how responsive the diaphragm is to that section.
 
[size=12pt]Now, how much of a difference that might make…. That’s not something someone can say until they’ve experienced it. [/size]
 

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