swaffleman
100+ Head-Fier
- Joined
- Jul 3, 2008
- Posts
- 444
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- 44
One thing I've noticed,
I have a pair of headphones that have a very punchy, articulate bass response (PX 200 II's,), but not much raw volume from what I can discern. Some untrained ears think they have no bass, although I quite like their bass response and overall coverage.
I have other headphones that have more pure volume but are not as articulate.
I have noticed that in environments where I am walking and I have low frequency sound around me (such as passing cars, etc), the articulation wins over the pure volume as far as being heard goes. Pure volume is more likely to be drowned out by outside sounds of a similar range, but the the actual articulation is almost always still audible.
How is that sort of sound achieved over the other? It seems like you cannot really account for articulation by looking at a frequency response graph. I am rather uneducated, though.
-Steve
I have a pair of headphones that have a very punchy, articulate bass response (PX 200 II's,), but not much raw volume from what I can discern. Some untrained ears think they have no bass, although I quite like their bass response and overall coverage.
I have other headphones that have more pure volume but are not as articulate.
I have noticed that in environments where I am walking and I have low frequency sound around me (such as passing cars, etc), the articulation wins over the pure volume as far as being heard goes. Pure volume is more likely to be drowned out by outside sounds of a similar range, but the the actual articulation is almost always still audible.
How is that sort of sound achieved over the other? It seems like you cannot really account for articulation by looking at a frequency response graph. I am rather uneducated, though.
-Steve