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Is there anything in the specs or measurements that accounts for SQ improvements?

post #1 of 11
Thread Starter 

Ok, so I know two amps can drive my favorite headphone.  Both SS amps.  Both have low distortion, flat response, and etc.. etc..  What is it obvious one is much clearer sounding, and tighter?  What is commonly talked about here is it measures the same so it should sound the same.  How to explain why one equipment sounds better?  Obviously these measurements are not cutting it when accounting for the difference.

post #2 of 11

the one that is more expensive sounds better.. :P

post #3 of 11
Thread Starter 
Quote:
Originally Posted by Lorspeaker View Post
 

the one that is more expensive sounds better.. :P

I hope this is not the case and it's just that I have never designed amps so it's just my ignorance of what a good design is.  I'd be more comfortable with objective data to back up what I'm hearing though.

post #4 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by SilverEars View Post
 

Ok, so I know two amps can drive my favorite headphone.  Both SS amps.  Both have low distortion, flat response, and etc.. etc..  What is it obvious one is much clearer sounding, and tighter?  What is commonly talked about here is it measures the same so it should sound the same.  How to explain why one equipment sounds better?  Obviously these measurements are not cutting it when accounting for the difference.

Does one sound obviously better under a blind test?

 

What are the measurements while driving those specific headphones?

post #5 of 11
Thread Starter 
Quote:
Originally Posted by higbvuyb View Post

 

What are the measurements while driving those specific headphones?

You mean like Tyll's measurements? With the ear simulator?  I don't have one.  You actually rely on them for gauging SQ?

 

I was wondering if you can measure the output of the amp while loaded to these headphones, and why we don't see those measurements.

post #6 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by SilverEars View Post
 

You mean like Tyll's measurements? With the ear simulator?  I don't have one.  You actually rely on them for gauging SQ?

 

I was wondering if you can measure the output of the amp while loaded to these headphones, and why we don't see those measurements.

I mean measurements with those headphones plugged in, amp driving them.

 

Headphones are complex loads so amps can behave differently with headphones plugged in.

post #7 of 11
Thread Starter 
Quote:
Originally Posted by higbvuyb View Post
 

I mean measurements with those headphones plugged in, amp driving them.

 

Headphones are complex loads so amps can behave differently with headphones plugged in.

I have planar magnetic, I believe it's resistive,no resonance.  I don't have equipment to measure it or have I seen amps measured with headphones as loads besides iems as loads.  


Edited by SilverEars - 4/24/14 at 4:40am
post #8 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by SilverEars View Post

Ok, so I know two amps can drive my favorite headphone.  Both SS amps.  Both have low distortion, flat response, and etc.. etc..  What is it obvious one is much clearer sounding, and tighter?  What is commonly talked about here is it measures the same so it should sound the same.  How to explain why one equipment sounds better?  Obviously these measurements are not cutting it when accounting for the difference.

The problem here is that you start from the assertion that there is a difference without providing evidence that one actually exists.

Slight differences in volume can lead one to think one sounds clearer/better/etc. when the reall difference is level mismatch

Once we rule out psychoacoustic effects, then we can start to speculate why things sound different. until them

Also, just because something is planardynamic, doesn't make it immune to differences due to output characteristics of the amplifier (E.g., see damping ratio).

Cheers
post #9 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by SilverEars View Post
 

I have planar magnetic, I believe it's resistive,no resonance.  I don't have equipment to measure it or have I seen amps measured with headphones as loads besides iems as loads.  

OK, but even as a purely resistive load, planar magnetic headphones provide a relatively low impedance, low-sensitivity load to the amp, thus requiring a fair amount of drive current. If an amp isn't good at sourcing a significant amount of current (for a headphone amp at least), it could distort, causing significant differences to the sound (even if the two measure identical with no load). Of course, it's also possible that the difference is placebo, and will go away with a proper, level-matched, double blind test.

post #10 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by ab initio View Post


Also, just because something is planardynamic, doesn't make it immune to differences due to output characteristics of the amplifier (E.g., see damping ratio).
 

I thought planar magnetic drivers were primarily damped by the air, so electrical damping didn't make much difference. If you combine this with their flat impedance vs frequency curve, I wouldn't expect them to care much about the output impedance of the amp. I could be wrong though...

post #11 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by cjl View Post
 

I thought planar magnetic drivers were primarily damped by the air, so electrical damping didn't make much difference. If you combine this with their flat impedance vs frequency curve, I wouldn't expect them to care much about the output impedance of the amp. I could be wrong though...


I don't think that "air damping" is a characteristic of orthos. The idea is more related to achieving a uniform magnetic field over the extent of the driver; therefore, then entire driver is actuated uniformly, moving in a plane (hence, "planar dynamics").

 

There is a diagram and discussion e.g., here, if you take this to be a somewhat reliable source of information.

 

Cheers

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