Sly, does your taste is sound ever change? For example do you prefer heavier bass one day, and maybe less bass another day? I know I sure do. Personally it is for this reason that I cannot trust my own hearing 100%, let alone the changing tastes of people other than myself.
What explains such changes in sonic preference? Surely it's something psychological related to mood or diet or who know how many variables. If this is the case, does it make more sense to give weight to the ever-changing sonic preferences of an individual, or the never-changing results of unbiased measurements? If one uses the same measurement source for each evaluation, then results will be more reliable for a person who hasn't heard an iem.
Basically, if I listened to people who liked an iem for whatever their subjective reasoning (mood, music choice, fit) then it would make perfect sense to buy every single iem ever that has proponents of its sound. Obviously this is a bad idea. As a potential buyer, it makes much more sense to go with data that doesn't change over time.
There is still room for preference here, but I hope this explains a little about why we think graphs matter, in some cases more than human impressions.
Edited by gnarlsagan - 6/27/13 at 12:06pm