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I inverted my graphic eq based on Headroom frequency response graphs. . . does that work or am I... - Page 3

post #31 of 39
Thread Starter 
Quote:
Originally Posted by stv014 View Post



No, it is possible to have high voltage with low output impedance. For example, this is true of any decent solid state speaker amplifier.

So a theoretical, perfect as amp would be high current, high voltage, and low output impedance? This amp would satisfy all headphones?
post #32 of 39
Quote:
Originally Posted by scannon18 View Post

So a theoretical, perfect as amp would be high current, high voltage, and low output impedance? This amp would satisfy all headphones?


Yes, although "unlimited" power does have the practical disadvantage that it can be too much with a sensitive headphone if you are not careful. Of course, for a good amplifier, you also want all sound quality related parameters (noise, distortion of various types, frequency response, etc.) to be good enough as well.

 

post #33 of 39

Yeah, all but some exotic ones. Of course, some people will tell you that amp X harmonizes better with headphone Y than amp Z although both can drive the headphones properly ... The biggest problem seems to be output impedance. Depending on the headphones' impedance curve it can cause big deviations. Some praise this as "warmth", "tamed treble" etc. I just call it what it is: "deviations from 'flat'".


Edited by xnor - 2/23/12 at 11:14am
post #34 of 39
Thread Starter 
So the denons, having a fairly flat impedance response across the frequency spectrum, should sound identical from any adequately powerful source with a flat frequency response and good noise/the/imd measurements?
post #35 of 39

Yep, if you do a level matched and preferably blind comparison. But I think that even if the impedance curve looks fairly flat you could probably distinguish between a 0 and lets say 100 ohm output impedance amp.


Edited by xnor - 2/23/12 at 12:07pm
post #36 of 39
Thread Starter 
Quote:
Originally Posted by xnor View Post

Yep, if you do a level matched and preferably blind comparison. But I think that even if the impedance curve looks fairly flat you could probably distinguish between a 0 and lets say 100 ohm output impedance amp.


Yes, so would the 100ohm impedance output amp screw up frequency response across the board with the denons? I'm still unclear on how output impedance affects headphone performance. Is it only a damping factor issue or does it mess with other things?
post #37 of 39
Quote:
Originally Posted by scannon18 View Post

Yes, so would the 100ohm impedance output amp screw up frequency response across the board with the denons? I'm still unclear on how output impedance affects headphone performance. Is it only a damping factor issue or does it mess with other things?


It can alter the frequency response, and also the distortion to some extent. But it is true that not all headphones are equally affected.

 

post #38 of 39
Quote:
Originally Posted by TMRaven View Post

 

On to a different note.  EQing by ear isn't good either.  Our hearing has its own loudness curve, and EQing to the point that everything sounds the same in volume just means you'll have hugely exaggerated low end and really high end.  In theory, compensating for computer measurements is the better approach.  


 

So EQ'ing by ear 0 - 20000 with 100Hz intervals in SineGen won't actually be neutral? What about just staying away from the really low and high ends?

 

I do think I see what you what you mean by looking at this graph though.

 

dc406542_721124698.png

 

If the equal-loudness contour was the frequency response of a headphone it wouldn't even be close to neutral right?

post #39 of 39

Again - do not use the compensated data. Use the raw. 

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