[QUOTE=mike1127;5845180]I don't get this nebulous concept that "data wasn't gathered in a proper manner."
I don't know how to make this any clearer for you. If you do not collect the data in a proper manner, any statistical analysis is useless.
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Originally Posted by mike1127 
A sighted test isn't a test on sound alone. As long as you recognize that, sure you can do statistical analysis on it. You would be testing more whether people need glasses, but to a first approximation there still is a 'p', that is, there still is a probability that someone gets the right answer, and you can reject the null hypothesis that p=0.5.
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If you do a sighted test, every subject tested will get 100% all of the time (even after 1,000 trials) unless they press the wrong button (highly unlikely). This will happen because if they know what the identity of A, B, X, and Y are, they'll be able to identify X as A or B in each trial without even listening to the music. You can't run statistical analysis and conclude anything meaningful when the subjects already know the answer to the questions you're giving them. You can do the math, but at the end of the day your hypotheses will either be meaningless or outright wrong.
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Originally Posted by mike1127 
I don't get your point. I accept that blind tests are tests on sound alone. So there's some value of p (in a crude model) and it's based only on what someone can hear.. and here's the kicker.. under those test conditions. It's not whether the whole concept is "valid" in some nebulous way. It's about how the test conditions affect p.
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Define P in this context, because you're not using a standard definition of a P-value here.
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Originally Posted by mike1127 
Sure it matters. Under those conditions, and with respect to the devices under test, we have rejected the null hypothesis.
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What would h1 be in this instance? You're begging the question that I'm asking you: would that test be sufficient evidence that cables have a causal effect on the audio system?
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Originally Posted by Pio2001 
The basics of ABX is that a positive proves that a difference exists, and that a negative doesn't prove anything.
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This is only true in some instances. It depends on what hypotheses you are testing.
If h0 is "cables a and b are audibly indistinguishable" and h1 is "cables a and b are audibly distinguishable," rejecting h1 is compelling evidence that h0 is likely true - this has nothing to do with statistics and has to do with logic - you cannot declare "not P" and declare "P" at the same time, assuming P is h1. In the case of statistics we're not dealing with logical truths, but you can substitute "not P is likely" and you still cannot conclude that "not P is unlikely".
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Originally Posted by Pio2001 
Because in medicine, tests are run on statistically representative samples of the population, in order to evaluate the average result, while in hifi, tests are run with one subject, that is everything but representative, in order to find a minimum possible effect.
Under these conditions, a negative doesn't prove the null hypothesis.
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Which is why I specified in my first post (in retrospect, rather redundantly, wrt quick-switching) that the samples would be representative.
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Originally Posted by mike1127 
I've answered that several times.
Maybe some of the confusion comes from the fact that I don't think quick-switch ABX is an "invalid method"---my hypothesis is that it's not very sensitive under certain conditions. That doesn't make it "invalid" in some general sense. it means that the "noise" in the "human test instrument" swamps the "signal".
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Which is why I brought up the hypothetical in the first place: would you accept a DBT if it turned out that a positive result was ascertained, even if all of the factors that you claim reduce the sensitivity of the test were still there? To avoid being redundant see my response to PhilS's post (since this response is getting long enough as is).
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Originally Posted by PhilS 
But I'm not sure I understand the logic behind the notion: "If we design a krappy DBT and the skeptics are prepared to accept a positive result, then you subjectivists should agree to accept a negative result if the result is, in fact, negative." I'm not sure that is what is being suggested, but that's sort of what I took from the initial post. And I think it is illogical. Maybe someone could explain better what the question is or how I'm misinterpreting it. (The second paragraph's description of "downfalls" is a little bit confusing; is "quick switching" good or bad?)
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Take mike's arguments (just because they're the most accessible, seeing as there are whole threads about them): all of his objections reduce to "something is messing with ABXs that reduce their sensitivity, and therefore they cannot be used to distinguish between cables." If, however, an ABX comes out with a positive result, despite the fact that ABX testing is insensitive (I'm granting arguments here), and mike (or whoever, I'm just using an example. This applies to many similar arguments) accepts these results as proof that cables make an audible difference, then in the real world (i.e. where ABX's have not in fact made a difference) mike's argument is circular: ABX's fail because they're insensitive, but if they showed that cables made a difference (in a hypothetical, i.e. a counterfactual) then they wouldn't be insensitive. At best this is just a heavily biased argument, but at worst this is circular. I'm not accusing him of anything, but I think that this logical structure either needs clarification or revision, which is why I made the thread.
Yes, I know, that big blob of text doesn't make much sense. I'll try to clarify it in a later post (one reason why I didn't reply for awhile).
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Originally Posted by PhilS 
It seems to me the better question is: "If we can design a test that the skeptics and objectivists can agree upon, are both sides prepare to accept the result, or at least give it some credence?
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That's a fair question, and worthy of discussion, it's just that I'm trying to get at something else in this thread.