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Posts by 3X0

Of course. I'm just curious as to what parameters were applied in the EQ'd chart to better understand what might be accounting for the change in decay behavior. Without those parameters, it just looks like a picture to me (it does a good job at showing "what" but doesn't even hint at "how"). How might nonlinear characteristics change with the application of linear EQ in any form? Just curious.
I would agree. The HD 800 is the only dynamic member I plan to keep in my stable (orthodynamics included). I'm still not fully convinced that the HD 800s are that difficult to tame (it was pretty much plug-and-play on my gear with predictable results), but it is certainly sufficiently revealing for a daily driver. I can't bear using Stax on the daily due to durability and reliability concerns.
What were the applied EQ parameters?   The amplitude for a given frequency band might just be hitting the -35dB cutoff point more quickly if it's attenuated. Just speculating since the context behind those charts in particular are rather vague in terms of methodology and context.   I've seen a HD 800 attenuated pretty much 6dB above 4KHz where the waterfall behavior down to -70dB didn't change significantly compared against some simple foam liner that attenuated just...
I've transitioned from my Omega to the HD 800 for general-purpose and I think the 800s get pretty close in resolution. Although the soundstage is more vast it doesn't have the ethereal qualities of the Stax -- that ethereality contributes greatly to perceived transparency and air IMHO. The 800s are also much harsher in the treble but I'm heavily biased against electrodynamics in this area.
beyerdynamic T90 Jubilee for $499: http://www.ebay.com/itm/301259820982
Maybe for a new-in-box one.I've seen several go for the triple digits over the past six months or so. They're not really worth over $1200 or so, rarity included.
Can we attribute lack of bass control to any particular deficiencies of the amplifier (e.g. slew rate, although this is just as an example and obviously wouldn't be involved)?   Not trying to be argumentative, just genuinely curious. I hear tubby bass being a complaint against lesser amplifiers for certain earspeakers but I'm not aware of why this would be the case versus other units.
Don't some brofessionals allege that the LNB and SNB sound better than their Pro bias counterparts?
Pop songs? More likely midbass.The older Denons have more subbass amplitude (relative to the midbass).Not really neutral -- there's too much of a dip in the midrange.All-rounder is subjective, but the TH600 is hardly ultimate in any respect.
Nope. Maybe the TH900 though.
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