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Posts by impermanente

This classified is only for trade and you just joined yesterday. No thanks
I 'd like to exchange my Audeze LCD 2 Bamboo and suede for a very good condition Sennheiser HD 800.   I'll add pictures soon (the loaded one is just an example of the type), the LCD2s are about 1 year old and in mint conditions. Complete with plastic travel box and with a self made cable with Furutech jack and Van Damme cable.   PREFERABLY WITHIN UK
HERE FOR SALE MY BEYERDYNAMIC T70P DIRECTLY BOUGHT FROM BEYERDYNAMIC GERMANY (NO SCRATCHES AT ALL OR SIGNS OF WEAR).   I ALSO THROW IN 2 PADS FROM THE AKG K240 (THEY COST ME £20) WHICH PERFECTLY FIT WITH THE T70P IMPROVING THE OVERALL PERFORMANCES (ESPECIALLY THE BASS RESPONSE). HERE SOME REVIEW ABOUT THE...
  thanks Steve,   So you are basically saying that since the resonance of the LCD2 is outside the audible spectrum (it is basically an harmonic oscillator so it must have a resonance frequency) it is useless damping it, one could not hear any ringing (unless one can hear ultrasounds).   Also reading your previous reply to xnor you are also saying that the reason of transient problems in the CSD plots is caused by other resonances of the diphragm in itself especially at...
Ok I see what you mean now, I apologize for my analogies, maybe are a little bit misleading. But when I say that damping works at all frequencies I mean in the transient phase, sharp changes of signal etc.   So for example for the LCD 2 in sequence:   1. I apply a signal to the speaker. 2. The diaphragm moves. 3. I stop the signal (or abrupt change). 4. In an ideal world the diaphragm does not have mass and it is not linked to anything so it would stop or...
"No, it doesn't work at "any frequency." It only works at the resonant frequency."     Please I don't understand this, could you please explain why in your opinion should the damping work only at the resonance frequency? It seems obvious for you but I don't see it.   The electrical damping works all the times the diaphragm moves, the movement in itself generates a current which generates a force opposite to the movement (damping force) this always happens just...
changed input to output...sorry :)
My mistake you are right, output impedance!   ...and yes I agree with you, probably for most of the headphones out there it is not possible to reach the critical damping, as rule of thumb I would say that this would be more possible for headphones with very low impedance and very strong magnets. I am thinking about the Tesla drivers and low impedance beyerdynamic drivers.
"But damping has everything to do with resonance. And I don't see any evidence of resonance in orthos in the audio band. Their impedance curves are ruler flat".   CORRECTED VERSION   I am not sure if I understand well what you are saying, are you saying that if a speaker (dynamic or orthos) does not have any resonance there is no need of damping?   A diaphragm attached to a frame behaves basically like a spring (ortho, dynamic or whatever), that's why it is a...
Here my 2 cents about the question, unfortunately I don't know any article specific for orthos:     In principle a very low impedance headphones amp output (1 ohm or less) allows the generated current from the headphones (generated by the inertia of the diaphragm of the orhto headphones after a stimulus) to flow "easily".   This means that the inertial oscillations of the diaphragm (due to the inertia of the diaphragm=mass + stifness of the joint to the frame) of...
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