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Posts by scannon18

So a theoretical, perfect as amp would be high current, high voltage, and low output impedance? This amp would satisfy all headphones?
Ok, so R is resistance and I is impedance?   And does providing high voltage mean a higher output impedance?  Because as I understand it tube amps are very high voltage and have high output impedances
Oh, I see.    Why even bother upgrading headphones to full hi-fi glory (i'm thinking LCD-2 and a $$$dac/amp) when recordings aren't even up to par these days?  I can tell poor recordings from good ones already with my D2000s (mid-fi by most standards).  Won't better headphones and gear only further reveal the inadequacies of modern recordings?  Especially since most recordings today (at least for my music) are mixed and mastered by the artists themselves using...
SO, about voltage v. current, I know some headphones like high current and some headphones like high voltage.  Does "power output" (such as the 15mw from my sansa clip) account for both of these? 
I've been reading a lot about the "loudness war" (there are many active threads around here) and have noticed that a lot of my music is gained very highly and sounds very loud, which I imagine means that they have been dynamically compressed.  I try to pay attention to see if I can gauge the amount of compression.   But for songs that start very quietly (i.e. I have to turn the volume up to normalize with other tracks) does this imply that it has not been dynamically...
    The eq process had to be an extact invert of the headroom graph.  That was the point.  I was trying to see if a balanced sound was achievable by inverting a qualified fr graph.  It isn't.     The argument between the E9 and the iPod arose out of a misunderstanding of how power is applied from amps to headphones.  I had imagined the iPod as not being capable of properly driving my denons because they did not have the necessary power.  Apparently this is actually due to...
SO let me ask this:   Assuming two seperate amps, both solid state and of the same output impedance and both being fed from the same dac, but otherwise different in terms of construction, parts, etc:  Assuming they both get the Denons "loud enough" they will both provide the same performance in terms of clairy, balance, extension, etc?  There will be no audible difference attributable to the amps?  What about their differences in voltage and current output?  Does...
Well I don't have any graphs, but can you explain why my iPod can run the denons to ear splitting levels but they sound "better " (I.e. more clarity and balance) from my e9 at lower volumes? And this is full knowing the o.I. of the e9 is too high for the denons Or is this just a "myth" to you, a cognitive bias perhaps? Hard for me to say that empirical evidence is a myth though I don't have any graphs to back it up. You think I work for a head amp company? What...
The output impedance of the iPod is still too high (denons tolerate at most 3ohms, 3rd Gen iPod touch is 7ohms) and is not nearly powerful enough. Sounding loud and sounding good are two different things. The denons can be "loud " no problem, but its likely you'll run into the v -shaped response curve everyone talks about, or bloated bass. More power equates to better control over the driver, not necessarily more volume.
It seems to me your source is either too weak or has too high an output impedance. The denons need a good amount of power to sound their best, but they are low resistance so they are susceptible to distortion from high output impedance from sources
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